After several concessions (marriage with Maria Theresa, neutrality in Franco-Spanish war) Leopold was finally elected as emperor in 1658.
If the final decision was taken by the archchancellor John Philip of Mainz, was, thus, the decision of Ferdinand III to be succeeded by his son Leopold just a mere indication ?
According to Machiavelli a virtuous Prince tightens alliances with smaller entities. Was Leopold I influenced by this assertion, during the Christian crusade in the Balkans? The Emperor did not ask for assistance to France or Spain, rather to Electors Max II Emmanuel of Bavaria and John George of Saxony.